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 Originally Posted by BankItPayette
Originally Posted by Lukie
10 cards make our hand, 36 do not.
$100 in the pot. Villain leads $50.
So... he leads 50 into a 100 pot, that's 150, add the 100 in value on the river, 250, and it's 50 to us. We are getting 5:1 in implied odds here and are only 3.6:1 against hitting.
Can you elaborate on the 3.6:1 calculation please?
Say you have a set on the turn with 4 flush cards out. Let's also assume we don't have the best hand. Say the board is Td 4d 7d Ad, and you hold black 10's. There are 46 unknown cards left in the deck. 10 make your hand (one T, three 4's, three 7's, three A's). 36 do not. So you are 36:10 against hitting = 3.6 : 1 against hitting. Just another way of saying you hit 10 out of 46 times.
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