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I'm unclear on the rationale for shoving the river. Isn't it possible that he has the nut straight (AJ)?
Similarly, increasing the raise on the flop seems strange to me, because we're on a draw, and the villain could have a made hand (say, TJ, giving him a pair of tens).
Are we just assuming that, because the villain is calling instead of raising, he can't possibly have anything? Isn't it worth considering that he has us beat already, and is just letting us be the aggressor so he doesn't have to indicate what he's got?
Yes, we're told that Villain is a "fish who min donk bets the flop constantly and then often slows down." But in this case, he has neither min bet the flop (he called our raise), nor has he slowed down after the flop.
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