in response to:
"These ranges are similar except perhaps at the very top end. What would he raise with? KK+? QQ+ Or is it as Daven says because he never raises preflop so we can't know what he might have?"

definitely a lot of villain's do 3bet KK+ at some frequency. and there's every chance this guy's one of them. i removed KK+ from my range because i assumed he would 3bet them at a higher frequency than he smooth calls, just based on my experience of randoms at microstakes. i could have removed half the combos of each if i wanted to be picky, but i had already typed out a response that i fucked up, and got lazy.


"Also, both of you have him calling with the same QJo that I shouldn't have played. Is this just because of the increased strength of his position or also the fact that two players before him put money in and so he has much better pot odds and implied odds if he hits two pair?"

the factors you mentioned (better pot odds etc etc), as well as his positional advantage make his call with QJo same hand better than yours. in all honesty though, i think that hand is in his range because he sucks at holdem and plays far too many hands preflop.

"By 'suited' here I assume you mean clubs?"

no, i meant suited. you may have noticed that preflop i may have typed something like "QTo+,Q8s+", whereas on the flop, i would have just said "Q8s-Q9s,QT+" to indicate the same range. doing that is just a personal preference thing that seems to make it easier for me to count card combinations in my head. all of the suited hands i mentioned there have at least middle pair, or bottom pair with a straightdraw of some kind. and i think they would be in his continuing range. i said after the bit you quoted that he also has all of the flush draw combinations from his preflop range, that our hand and the flop cards do not block, in his calling range. sorry if that was unclear. the text i ended up posting was pretty hurried after typing out an initial response i fucked up.

"I can see why I would expect him to raise with a nut hand but I'm not so clear about the draws. He is playing passively, would he really continue to try and get his flush or straight?"

the word "passive" in poker, i think, refers to people who are very rarely aggressive. preferring actions such as "check" and "call" to "bet" and "raise". this person's preflop stats show that they are quite passive (they see a flop with 30% of hands but only raise something ludicrous like 1%). most people who play passive (again i might be wrong) are typically also calling stations. they call way too much. for this reason i cant see this particular opponent folding any flush draw, OESD, or even pair/gutterball hand to your bet on the turn. particularly when you offer him pot odds of 3:1

"So check/fold here?"

definitely check. and then decide whether to call based on the pot odds your opponent gives you, and your equity against the range you think he lays those odds with. basically, you need >50% equity against an opponents CALLING (strong emphasis that it's the range they call your bet with, not the range you bet into) range in order for that bet to have a higher expected value than checking. i think daven said that you have something like 35% against your opponents range on the river before you even take an action. asking him to put money into the pot (by betting) is only going to make that range stronger. for more on that topic, see caddie's recent-ish thread "value betting on the river"

gl. ps, i don't know how to multi-quote either. hopefully you can tell where i'm quoting and responding to quotes etc etc