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 Originally Posted by spoonitnow
You seem to be jumping to a conclusion based on a rule you've picked up somewhere without knowing why to/how to use the rule or how it works.
pretty much sums up my poker experience to-date 
OK, question: how does the above tie in with Villain's Fold-to-cBet %? I know that this stat is an average of his tendencies over every spot he's played, but it seems a bit redundant if we are going to examine each flop in this kind of detail each time.
or am i missing something (again)?
Moving on...
 Originally Posted by spoonitnow
You need him to fold > 41% of the time for pure bluffs with no equity to be +EV. That doesn't include any of your semi-bluffing hands...
Understood.
So for semi-bluffs, are we talking about Fold Equity here (i.e. another rule I've picked up somewhere without knowing why to/how to use, or how it works)?
AFAIK, our Total Equity = (our Current Pot Equity) + ((Chance Villain will fold) * (Villains's Pot Equity)).
If we use 8 8 for my hand in the above example, i have 23% Pot Equity vs. {JJ-TT,T9s,98s,QdJd,QdTd,JdTd,8d7d} on Flop A, Villain has 77%.
If we expect him to fold ~23% of the time (i have adjusted for impact of blockers on his range this time) we have ~18% Fold Equity, and therefore ~41% Total Equity, which is 0EV.
Is this right?
Even so, we aren't getting any better hands to fold and we only have ~14% vs his calling range.
 Originally Posted by spoonitnow
I' m glad you're taking this seriously.
i hope that this was never in doubt. enjoying this...
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