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 Originally Posted by BeeJall
But if your opponent has top pair, he's probably going to be willing to get it in on the flop, what are you going to do if you're raised? If you end up calling his all in with just a draw then you've done exactly what he wants. Where's the implied odds there?
That is explained in the initial post and thats the question. i have odds to call the all-in.
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