Floating

Originally Posted by XxStacksxX

[x] floating itt. Villain actually had a plan to bet spade rivers, as a bluff because he believed villain's range was weak. Floating does not mean you continue with little to no equity. Here villain had some outs, and just so happened to hit his outs.

Whether the decision to float or not was prudent, given his stack size, I probably wouldn't. After villains bet on the river, he has like $0.53c behind. So in most cases on any river that he does bet, we don't stand to have much fold equity (presumably). On the rivers, he does check, then maybe, however, as evident by the way he played this hand (results. use for future hands), he isn't likely to check the river, even with his marginal hands (QQ obv).

Regarding whether the turn call was +EV or not, I'm not going to do the math right now because I'm in class, and also not 100% sure how to go about it at this time. But given typical 2nl villains, I doubt he is folding often to a shove, especially if he bets the river, so bluff raising spade rivers, probably isn't going to be as profitable as you think.

Oh he did he say he was going to try to take it away on a spade. I probably skimmed through the thread too quickly, so my bad. It's still not the best illustration of a float though.

Originally Posted by XxStacksxX

And another note, don't play anything with a bigger gap than 2 (unless it's a button open). You can never flop a strong draw (no OESD), and your gutter isn't going to be the gutter to the nuts. This means you're playing a hand that you're trying to play with good implied odds that has huge reverse implied odds, which is sooooo counter-intuitive.

False. And this just goes to show how bad general statements are in poker. Are you really folding ATs in the CO because it has more than 2 gaps? Obviously not (I hope). I knew this wasn't what you meant, but how could I be sure (lol general stateaments).

I'll try to be more careful posting. I just thought that it would be common sense for people to play a hand like big or suited aces. I guess I didn't think people would misinterpret it that way.

Floating

Thread Tools

Search Thread

Display

Hybrid View

Posting Permissions

10-05-2009 03:25 PM #1
ColdDecked View Profile View Forum Posts Private Message View Blog Entries Join Date Feb 2009 Posts 270	Originally Posted by XxStacksxX [x] floating itt. Villain actually had a plan to bet spade rivers, as a bluff because he believed villain's range was weak. Floating does not mean you continue with little to no equity. Here villain had some outs, and just so happened to hit his outs. Whether the decision to float or not was prudent, given his stack size, I probably wouldn't. After villains bet on the river, he has like $0.53c behind. So in most cases on any river that he does bet, we don't stand to have much fold equity (presumably). On the rivers, he does check, then maybe, however, as evident by the way he played this hand (results. use for future hands), he isn't likely to check the river, even with his marginal hands (QQ obv). Regarding whether the turn call was +EV or not, I'm not going to do the math right now because I'm in class, and also not 100% sure how to go about it at this time. But given typical 2nl villains, I doubt he is folding often to a shove, especially if he bets the river, so bluff raising spade rivers, probably isn't going to be as profitable as you think. Oh he did he say he was going to try to take it away on a spade. I probably skimmed through the thread too quickly, so my bad. It's still not the best illustration of a float though. Originally Posted by XxStacksxX And another note, don't play anything with a bigger gap than 2 (unless it's a button open). You can never flop a strong draw (no OESD), and your gutter isn't going to be the gutter to the nuts. This means you're playing a hand that you're trying to play with good implied odds that has huge reverse implied odds, which is sooooo counter-intuitive. False. And this just goes to show how bad general statements are in poker. Are you really folding ATs in the CO because it has more than 2 gaps? Obviously not (I hope). I knew this wasn't what you meant, but how could I be sure (lol general stateaments). I'll try to be more careful posting. I just thought that it would be common sense for people to play a hand like big or suited aces. I guess I didn't think people would misinterpret it that way.