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 Originally Posted by metaxy6
Just to support the idea of viewing the $50 separately from the $179, the villian hopes to accomplish something with the turn bet. He can reasonably expect to take down the pot uncontested with that bet some of the time (against AK, for instance). That didn't work, but something new developed - i.e., the chance to now call with correct pot odds.
In this hand there was no way i was folding therefore it was a very -EV bet and he is only just priced in for the draw because of that bet so the sum of the two actions is -EV. What is the difference between this hand and the example? Just because its an extreme example it doesnt mean the principles are different, in the example hero also allowed villain to price himself in.
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