The example isn't really instructive.

So, it more or less boils down to whether one views the villian's inital $50 bet as of a piece with the $79 behind call - ??
If one sees it as essentially one bet - as it sounds like people are inclined to do - then the hero got the opponent to hang himself and call against pot odds on a draw.
If one views them in isolation - as I am saying it's possible to do (but which I am not stuck on doing) - then the hero allowed the opponent to price himself into making a correct call to hit the draw.

Just to support the idea of viewing the $50 separately from the $179, the villian hopes to accomplish something with the turn bet. He can reasonably expect to take down the pot uncontested with that bet some of the time (against AK, for instance). That didn't work, but something new developed - i.e., the chance to now call with correct pot odds.

And, just to clarify, I wouldn't think twice if the staks were 3-4 x as deep, and the all-in CR would actually price the villian out of any draw.

Arkana and I have gone back and forth on it. I know where he's coming from, and he knows where I'm coming from - even if he thinks I'm dense. I'd genuinely like to hear what others think. Not trying to be obtuse (lol, I just am)...just really wondering if it matters how the money gets in.