Do we ever take reverse implied odds into account when thinking about a cbet? Like, say we had a fr game such that stacks of those involved are
Hero(100bb)
Villain(100bb)
Card dealt to Hero []
lotsa folds...Villain calls, Hero raise 3x...some folds...villain calls
Flop :Ts:
Villain checks, Hero???

Villain is a 16/7, lets say he calls with his entire limping range. And lets say that range is the following [22+,ATs+,KTs+,QTs+,JTs,T9s,98s,87s,76s,65s,54s,43s ,32s,
AJo+,KJo+,QJo]

Worse hands that call: 33-55, 77-88,
combos = 30

Better hands that call/raise: 22, 66, TT, ATs, KTs, QTs,
combos = 30

So theoretically, we are mixed about cbetting. (ignoring better hands that fold like JT and T9 because it is unknown weather they call or fold)

In this kind of scenario, would we lean towards cbetting simply because there are many cards that could come that improve the equity of villain's range? And how much would this affect it? As in, if we were leaning towards checking instead of cbetting, would this factor be enough to push us towards cbetting in that instance as well? Im leaning towards yes but i dont know how much of a factor it really has