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 Originally Posted by daviddem
Fair enough, but now take your hand and apply the method described in this thread to it. Even if you cannot put your opponent on a precise range, you will soon realize that even if his range was tight it would warrant a call. Please do the actual calculations and post them here in this thread. We'll help with the math if you have difficulties. Actually doing this regularly helps tremendously to develop a feel for similar situations, which you can use at the tables. Also next time you have a similar situation, you can do the calcs in your OP and then all that remains to be discussed is whether the range you put him on is correct or not.
Ok.........
1: Bet size/(bet size + pot size)
The way I see it....
7.40/(7.40 + 13.15) = 36%
2: The poker stove calculations -
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 58.014% 54.45% 03.57% 151959394 9960364.00 { AcKd }
Hand 1: 41.986% 38.42% 03.57% 107225430 9960364.00 { 22+, A8s+, KTs+, QJs, A9o+, KJo+ }
So as has been said before, I certainly had the equity to call and should have. Even if he only shoves with KK+ and AK I still have the equity to call. Any which way you want to slice and dice the numbers it was an oh so obvious call.
So do we even consider the fact that we only have a sample of 24 hands on the guy? Sure he is looking like a complete maniac fish at this stage but over only 24 hands can we really make any sort of true determination of his range?
Now, in this particular situation with the amounts involved we have the equity to call almost no matter what so that's settled. But what if the situation/amounts were different? Do we look at the 24 hands and decide this guy must be a fool, assign a relatively large range to him and call or do we err on the side of caution and fold?
Obviously each situation is different and there is no straight answer to those questions. It was these questions regarding my sample size that really drove me to ask here in the first place but I didn't really make that clear in my OP.
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