Quote Originally Posted by wufwugy
a 5 to 1 underdog (who will win 1 in every 6 times) needs to get 5 to 1 from the pot for the call to be break even since he would be contributing 1/6th of the pot.

if that's the case then why does a 5 to 1 under flush draw need only 4 to 1 for the call to be break even?
does anybody have a response for this?