Thanks again for your help.

The first paragraph makes sense.

The second one I am struggling with. You are thinking of the exact scenario I am. If we calculate out 18/47 we get 38% that an opponent has the other Q. But that seems completely at odds with the chance being 5% that all 4 queens were in the top 25 cards of the deck. It seems to me that the 5% sounds more correct, yet your logic is sound. I don’t know how to reconcile the two.