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 Originally Posted by wellrounded08
I wasn't the preflop aggressor, so c-bet was not in the picture really. My bluff was the raise.
I didn't consider that my c/r had me comited on a turn bet, that's my bad. I did think villain would fold.
I feel like a leak of mine is calling w/ a second best hand, when I should just get out. That's why I made it raise or fold. +Some hands better than mine would be PP's and I thought I could maybe fold those out with a c/r.
I dont think this last part makes sense to me. 22 and 44 are probably the only PPs he is folding. And... is he likely to have one of those? Would he raise them pre?
Im not saying the c/r wasn´t fine, only that last reason you mentioned doesnt make sense to me.
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