03-19-2013 03:00 AM
#1
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03-19-2013 03:04 AM
#2
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Last edited by rpm; 03-19-2013 at 03:09 AM. | |
03-19-2013 03:22 AM
#3
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I said no rake, exactly for that point. It'd be a situation where if there was rake it'd be included in giving you the right odds for it to have an EV of 0. |
03-19-2013 03:46 AM
#4
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sorry, must have skim-read your first post. from an in-a-vacuum EV standpoint, we're indifferent. from a metagame standpoint, we could probably gain/lose some future EV if villain knows we are calling/folding 0EV hands and we can anticipiate if/how he will adjust (spoons maths of EV thread touches this i think, or maybe game theory and poker), from a personal psychological standpoint, it depends on your personal perspective, how risk-averse you are etc. | |
Last edited by rpm; 03-19-2013 at 03:53 AM. | |
03-19-2013 05:41 AM
#5
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03-19-2013 05:56 AM
#6
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Versus a random fold, who needs more variance? |
Last edited by Icanhastreebet; 03-19-2013 at 06:02 AM.
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03-19-2013 06:50 AM
#7
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03-20-2013 03:32 AM
#8
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03-20-2013 03:51 AM
#9
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i don't understand how we could be being exploited if we are making all the +EV calls and folding the rest? | |
03-20-2013 06:21 AM
#10
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03-20-2013 06:34 AM
#11
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03-20-2013 09:36 AM
#12
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I feel like I always end up calling shoves in what I perceive to be close to 0 EV spots. I'm not really sure why that is. Making cause folding seems weak? | |
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03-20-2013 10:35 AM
#13
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To OP's question, if it's 0EV including range considerations, then in a perfect world, I would decide whether or not to call on how much it would tilt me vs. tilting my opponent. | |
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03-20-2013 05:33 PM
#14
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ha, too easy. crystal clear now. thanks spoon | |