question is a bit ambiguous, no offense obv
assumptions:
- villain's range is polarized between bluffs and nut hands
- we beat all bluffs but lose to all nut hands
- villain's polarized range is not "balanced" as our equity is only 30%
- therefore 30/100 hands are bluffs and 70/100 hands are nuts
If villain "bluffs twice as often", and he currently bluffs 30/100, then he will now bluff 60/100; and since we beat all bluff hands, our equity is now 60%.
Edit: to clarify - I've interpreted the language used by spoon -- "bluffs twice as often" -- in relative, and not absolute, terms. So the villain is not adding an equal number of bluff combos to the mix; in this case 30+30 / 130 = 46% -- he is actually bluffing double the proportion of combos he was before; 60/100 instead of 30/100.
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