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I can give this a shot. I won't pretend to know what Spenda had in mind in these spots, but I can say what I would think.
 Originally Posted by KeeKoLy
1. You have a hand on table four at about 14:30, in this hand you have wired 8's with which you raise and end up in position HU. Flrop comes TXX, and you are lead into. You call the raise and wait to see if he double barrels you. Turn brings a K, a good scare card for you and he does again lead, this time you raise to 1.75, and he folds. Nice play there. My question is if he shoves after your 1.75 raise, what is your play?
It's an easy fold to the shove. The shove looks like either KT, Kxss, QJss, or maybe A4ss, A5ss. We are in pretty horrible shape against that range:
Code:
Board: 3s 2s Td Kc
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 13.876% 13.88% 00.00% 116 0.00 { 8h8s }
Hand 1: 86.124% 86.12% 00.00% 720 0.00 { As5s, As4s, KsQs, KsJs, KTs, Ks9s, Ks7s, Ks6s, Ks5s, Ks4s, QsJs, KTo }
 Originally Posted by KeeKoLy
Part 2, what if he simply calls? You say you will have to shove the river, is this assuming he checks first, or do you shove either way? Can you run through scenarios on the river?
This was probably assuming he checks first. If he bets into us, we have to look at the bet size, pot size, and how much he has left to determine if he will ever fold. The point of a river shove is to get a fold from 99, or Tx or even a weak Kxss. If he bets an amount that indicates he won't be folding, I think we just have to fold.
 Originally Posted by KeeKoLy
And in regards to him possibly shoving after your raise one the turn, and you do fold, how are you affected with regards to table image, and/or what affect would that have on future pots with this player? Do you feel like he will think he can "run over" you, or do you continue to play the same after that?
If we continue to see this guy play back at us, we'll have to adjust or raising and calling ranges. Perhaps instead of calling the flop on the hand in question, we would instead try to raise it and end the hand right there. On another hand where we don't want to get check/raised, we might opt to check behind against this opponent. I don't think we're ever too worried about how a play affects our table image, though. What's important is that we know what our image is so that we can exploit that for maximum profit.
 Originally Posted by KeeKoLy
2. At 26:00 on table one you see a flop (unraised) with JTs, and one player bets into it on an A high flop. You have only a BDF and BDS draw, and "for the sake of the video" you call since you are both deep and you are hoping you can stack him if he over-values his likely paired ace. For beginners like me just trying to grind a roll, would you suggest we call also in this place or would you fold and continue to nut camp?
I highly doubt that such a play would be recommended for beginners. This is truly a recipe for spew at low stakes in the hands of someone who doesn't know exactly what they're doing and why they're doing it. Typically when he says, "for the sake of the video," he's making an unrecommended play for a chance to get into more interesting, instructive spots.
 Originally Posted by KeeKoLy
3. When you start the PT review, you show you were 20/10 and say you like to be in 20 PERCENT of the hands at this level because you know you have an edge post- flop. This question is more related to your terminology, is VPIP actually considered % of hands? I did not think it was...or is it % of hands in which you Voluntarily put in $?
VPIP is the percentage of hands that you voluntarily put money in the pot. Checking the big blind counts as 0/1 in PokerTracker, for whatever reason (I think it should be 0/0). Most of the HUD stats that we talk about are in terms of percentages, expressed in number of occurrences / number of opportunities. Thus 3bet% is number of 3bets / number of times you acted with a raise of any kind in front.
 Originally Posted by KeeKoLy
4. When looking at the position tab in PT, how do the hands and VPIP's relate? Meaning, in the video you only played 7 hands from the CO, so I expect VPIP to be low which it is (0). You played the same number of hands on the button as you did in position 4, yet the VPIP is nearly 7 times higher on the button? Can you also elaborate on how this "should" look after a very large sample size? i.e. i would expect hands played to be highest on button and decrease all the way to CO, what about VPIP? Should button plays be about double those from BUT+1 after time? What about PF rasie %? Maybe this is too detailed...
VPIP per position works the exact same way as overall VPIP. After a very large sample size, late positions should have a higher VPIP than early positions. I don't know what you mean by "CO", I think you're actually referring to UTG. The positions, starting from the button and moving away from the blinds, are BUT, CO, HJ, MP2, MP1, UTG+1, UTG, BB, SB.
Button VPIP should probably not be double the CO. It should probably end up somewhere in the range of 25-60% higher depending on how you play, but not double (100% higher). PFR should be 0-5 points lower than VPIP in general, but depending on table conditions could be as high as a 10 point difference.
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