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 Originally Posted by Off5th
Ok now since that flopping a flush draw is 11% ( close to flopping a set which is 11.8%) Now for example in a $50 n/l game if a person raises $3. And you get it Ax suitd from late position, and flop a flush draw on the flop. YOu get it isolated to only you and him and with great implied odds (assuming you know he'll pay you off if you hit your flush). Would it be correct to call preflop and small bets that he makes post flop?? I don't know if this is correct so feel free to make suggestions please
My instant thoughts are that people can't see sets looking at them and there is nothing better than a single suit flop to dry up action so you will have your work cut out to make someone stack off. That said there is something very satisfying about someone with a lower flush paying you off, but some tighter players would even fold these in the face of mad action imho.
I play 6 max and generally play A2-5 suited (as well as the high ones obviously) and leave out the mid-ones as it gives the chance of a straight, I dont like calling raises with them but that depends on reads and how the other players act post flop. I am constantly trying not to chase and the worst case is ending up looking at a flush draw heads up against an aggressive post flop player, ooohh the temptation.
I probably play them badly tho, on my baby PT database (11855 hands) I am up $48.93 on Ax suited. Most of this comes from AKs obviously (over$100) and includes a couple of bad beats etc where flushes hit full houses on river (I think i posted a few of those last weekend to vent) .
I would probably be up a lot more if I just folded all below A10s but I dont want to look like a rock! A2-A5 are pretty much break even and probably help keep it looking like I'm doing something.
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