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SonOfAkira
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06-21-2006, 11:58 AM
Post subject: Math question, extra credit (semi-lo content)
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#1 (permalink)
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Straight
Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 147
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So if you play poker long enough you will see every possible scenario, though this one is limited to onine play:
On two tables, at the same time, I am dealt:
They were blue, however. This is incidental.
This is a hand I rank high in terms of the suited 1-gappers (close behind J9s, the uber nuts) and wouldnt mind seeing a cheap multiway flop with, preferably with position. I manage this on both tables (button, CO) and the flop comes down on the first table:
and on the second table:
Weird. I win a small pot on one and a mid-large pot on the other. This is also incidental.
The question is, obviously, what are the odds of this happening, being dealt the exact same hand on two tables at the same time and having the flop come down nearly identical, numbered identically with only one pair being unsuited?
Also, how much more improbable is the the flop being identical, or in the same order (Q, 10, 2)?
Or both hand being dealt in the same position?
Or all of the above?
This isnt an official contest; I won't be sending anybody $5 in their poker stars account (I don't have one), though if I can't figure it when I tackle it tomorrow, maybe i'll think of something; besides, of course, the knowledge being our reward.
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WildBobAA
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: lol i dunno
Posts: 1,811
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28.9%
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swiggidy
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Sep 2005
Location: Waiting in the shadows ...
Posts: 3,777
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by WildBobAA
28.9%
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I'll take the under
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(\__/)
(='.'=)
(")_(")
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johnnyBuz
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Flush
Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Philly, Pa
Posts: 462
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by WildBobAA
.289%
.0289%
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maybe one of those.
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Liter of cola.
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pokerroomace
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Full House
Join Date: May 2006
Posts: 783
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The odds of being dealt the exact same hand on both tables in any order is 1 in 2,300,000. The same as being dealt a royal flush of spades (or a particular suit) with 5 cards.
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Pyroxene
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06-21-2006, 08:13 PM
Post subject: Re: Math question, extra credit (semi-lo content)
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#6 (permalink)
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Straight
Join Date: Dec 2004
Posts: 236
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by SonOfAkira
The question is...
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The odds of a specific table being dealt the exact same two card hand that is in play at another specific table is:
1 in 52!/((50!)*(2!)) or 1 in 1326 (.0754%)
the odds of the same hand happening and then matching the 3 card flop are:
1 in 1326 * 50!/((47!)*(3!)) or 1 in 25,989,600.
the general odds of the same hand happening and then numerically matching the 3 card flop with 2 matching suits and 1 unmatched (and no pairs) are:
1 in 1326 * 50!/((47!)*(54)) or 1 in 2,887,733.3 (the key here is that there are 54 combinations of the same ranks with 2 matching suits and 1 unmatched).
the more specific odds of all that happening and flopping two pair matching your hole cards
1 in 2,887,733.3 * 50!/((47!)*3*3*44*6) or 1 in 142,928,213
Quote:
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Originally Posted by pokerroomace
The odds of being dealt the exact same hand on both tables in any order is 1 in 2,300,000. The same as being dealt a royal flush of spades (or a particular suit) with 5 cards.
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I want to point out that this is not quite the questsion that was asked. While I agree that the odds of being dealt the same hand on both tables are 1 in 2,598,960 (52!/(47!*5!)), that would match situations where the hole cards on table one are :As: :Ks: and the flop is :Qs: :Js: :Ts: and the hole cards on table 2 are :Ts: :Js: and the flop is :Qs: :Ks: :As:. His question was a bit more specific that the hole cards had to match and then the flop had to match; which, of course, is less likely by a fair amount.
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Pyroxene
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SonOfAkira
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Straight
Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 147
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by WildBobAA
28.9%
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Detention, smart-aleck.
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Monty9
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Flush
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: new jwesey
Posts: 255
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Not that often??
I had a situation happen to me the other night where I was delt AK on two tables and was beaten and busted out by JJ on both tables.
This reminds me of the question:
If a chicken and a half laid an egg and a half in a day in a half...How long does it take a grasshopper with a wooden leg to kick the seeds out of a dill pickle??
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Why is it a penny for your thoughts but
you have to put your 2 cents in??
Somebody's making a penny!!
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swiggidy
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Sep 2005
Location: Waiting in the shadows ...
Posts: 3,777
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by Monty9
If a chicken and a half laid an egg and a half in a day in a half...How long does it take a grasshopper with a wooden leg to kick the seeds out of a dill pickle??
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28.9%
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(\__/)
(='.'=)
(")_(")
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Monty9
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Flush
Join Date: Aug 2005
Location: new jwesey
Posts: 255
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Guess it was that obvious.... gg swiggidy
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Why is it a penny for your thoughts but
you have to put your 2 cents in??
Somebody's making a penny!!
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pokerroomace
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06-21-2006, 08:56 PM
Post subject: Re: Math question, extra credit (semi-lo content)
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#11 (permalink)
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Full House
Join Date: May 2006
Posts: 783
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by Pyroxene
Quote:
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Originally Posted by SonOfAkira
The question is...
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The odds of a specific table being dealt the exact same two card hand that is in play at another specific table is:
1 in 52!/((50!)*(2!)) or 1 in 1326 (.0754%)
the odds of the same hand happening and then matching the 3 card flop are:
1 in 1326 * 50!/((47!)*(3!)) or 1 in 25,989,600.
the general odds of the same hand happening and then numerically matching the 3 card flop with 2 matching suits and 1 unmatched (and no pairs) are:
1 in 1326 * 50!/((47!)*(54)) or 1 in 2,887,733.3 (the key here is that there are 54 combinations of the same ranks with 2 matching suits and 1 unmatched).
the more specific odds of all that happening and flopping two pair matching your hole cards
1 in 2,887,733.3 * 50!/((47!)*3*3*44*6) or 1 in 142,928,213
Quote:
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Originally Posted by pokerroomace
The odds of being dealt the exact same hand on both tables in any order is 1 in 2,300,000. The same as being dealt a royal flush of spades (or a particular suit) with 5 cards.
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I want to point out that this is not quite the questsion that was asked. While I agree that the odds of being dealt the same hand on both tables are 1 in 2,598,960 (52!/(47!*5!)), that would match situations where the hole cards on table one are :As: :Ks: and the flop is :Qs: : Js: :Ts: and the hole cards on table 2 are :Ts: : Js: and the flop is :Qs: :Ks: :As:. His question was a bit more specific that the hole cards had to match and then the flop had to match; which, of course, is less likely by a fair amount.
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Ye. I didn't think of that. I meant to write 1 in 2.6mil. But it's higher than that as you said, because the two cards in your hands on both tables have to match as well.
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siknd
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Flush
Join Date: Sep 2005
Posts: 359
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the chances might be better than they appear because these calculations are assuming that he is playing ONLY two tables. if hes playing 8, say, then this is hardly remakable. in fact, im suprised it never happened sooner.

i have no superstitions, really, but often when im dealt the same hand simultaneously i think it might be lucky so ill play both. this was fun for awhile, but then it just cost money.
last night i got 98o three times in a row at the same table. boy was i getting bored with that.
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'If you think a weakness can be turned into a strength, I hate to tell you this, but that's another weakness. '
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swiggidy
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Sep 2005
Location: Waiting in the shadows ...
Posts: 3,777
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If he is playing 8 tables then there are 8!/(6!*2!) = 8*7/2 = 28
so take 1 in 142,928,213, divide by 28
1 in 5 104 579, I would not call that common
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(\__/)
(='.'=)
(")_(")
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