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no because when you remove one chip it is not even a call amount

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  1. #1
    Eric's Avatar
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    Default no because when you remove one chip it is not even a call amount

    This is what @SavagePoker answered when @TheAceOfJames asked about the following on twitter recently:
    first raise utg was 600 to make it 1100.
    Doesn't that make the 2 chip 2000 bet after that a legal raise even if not verbalized?

    Here's the exchange: https://twitter.com/SavagePoker/stat...57238209810432
  2. #2
    MadMojoMonkey's Avatar
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    I would expect that it's 1,100 to call and min-raise would be $1,600.

    There's no real 'standard' in poker rules aside from scoring and the betting structure. House rules vary quite a bit and you just need to know them for the house where you play.
  3. #3
    Eric's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by MadMojoMonkey View Post
    I would expect that it's 1,100 to call and min-raise would be $1,600.
    Based on the $600 utg raise, my read is that the minimum re-raise amount is $600 so a min-raise would be $1,700. Of course based on the logic shown by Matt Savage it doesn't matter whether it is $1,600 or $1,700 in this case in this tournament.
  4. #4
    MadMojoMonkey's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Eric View Post
    Based on the $600 utg raise, my read is that the minimum re-raise amount is $600 so a min-raise would be $1,700. Of course based on the logic shown by Matt Savage it doesn't matter whether it is $1,600 or $1,700 in this case in this tournament.
    You're right, I agree. I misread it as a raise from $600 to $1,100 rather than a raise of $600 to $1,100.
  5. #5
    Eric's Avatar
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    Right, I think about it this way:


    One chip rule: A single chip is not a raise unless verbalized.


    One chip extension rule: If the amount of the bet less the smallest chip is not enough for a call then it is not a raise unless verbalized.

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