I've been working on my PF limit game and I was curious what others thoughts were on implied odds PF. For example:

MP2 16.90% { JJ-22, AJs-A2s, K7s+, Q7s+, J7s+, T7s+, 96s+, 85s+, 75s+, 64s+, 54s, AJo-A7o, KTo+, QTo+, JTo, T9o }
MP3 16.92% { JJ-22, AJs-A2s, K7s+, Q7s+, J7s+, T7s+, 96s+, 85s+, 75s+, 64s+, 54s, AJo-A7o, KTo+, QTo+, JTo, T9o }
CO 16.92% { JJ-22, AJs-A2s, K7s+, Q7s+, J7s+, T7s+, 96s+, 85s+, 75s+, 64s+, 54s, AJo-A7o, KTo+, QTo+, JTo, T9o }
HERO 15.41% { 7d5d }
SB 16.93% { JJ-22, AJs-A2s, K7s+, Q7s+, J7s+, T7s+, 96s+, 85s+, 75s+, 64s+, 54s, AJo-A7o, KTo+, QTo+, JTo, T9o }
BB 16.92% { JJ-22, AJs-A2s, K7s+, Q7s+, J7s+, T7s+, 96s+, 85s+, 75s+, 64s+, 54s, AJo-A7o, KTo+, QTo+, JTo, T9o }


We are the BTN with 75s and 3 players limp to us + the BB. The BB is passive so they will always check other then AA-QQ. We think the SB will complete 90% of the time. So total pot for our consideration is 17.7, 3/17.7= 16.9%.

Our 75s is only going to win the hand 15.4% of the time but thats if we flip up our cards right now and run it without further betting. We will get paid off when we hit 2pair, straight, flush, but will lose our best hands to bigger hands some of the time. I understand this is taken into consideration when running equity calculations but I don't know how to account for the extra money made when we hit.

What I am wondering is how do you equate for implied odds when working with PF simulations? I would have to assume that 75s is +EV with all those players to the flop.

Basically, I have been playing a lot of suited 3gap and non suited decent connectors in late positions and am trying to figure out if I am bleeding chips.