Originally Posted by LuckySlevin
Thanks stacks does the fact that i've received a pair change the probability of him having received a pair?
I mean in a four player game intuition tells me it's likely for someone else to have a pair if I already have one, because it's less likely for two players to both be dealt pairs out of four, than for one.
I know intuition can be wrong sometimes though with these things.
Have I got this right? Or does the fact that I have a pair not change the probability of him also having received a pair?
Because if it doesn't and we both have an equal chance I can see why it wasn't a great call, because if he does have a pair, chances are it's higher than my pair.