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the chart in GSH states that a flush draw breaks even at 4.1-to-1, yet when dividing 9 into 47 i get 5.2 which would make it 5.2-to-1 (i assume this is how to calculate the odds). TOP states that drawing to a flush makes you a 5-to-1 underdog. im terrible at math and such but there seems to be a discrepancy. if there is, why?
also, can somebody tell me how, or if it's too complicated, can somebody direct me to a source to learn how to calculate the odds of anything happening in Hold em?
1 out of 5 is the same as 4 to 1
1 good, 4 bad, 5 total
1/5 you will win 1 in every 5 times
1:5 you will win 1 time, for every 5 loses
so im assuming the vocal expression of 1/5 is 1 in 5 and 1:5 is 1 to 5?
is this accurate: a 5 to 1 underdog (who will win 1 in every 6 times) needs to get 5 to 1 from the pot for the call to be break even since he would be contributing 1/6th of the pot?
if that's the case then why does a 5 to 1 under flush draw need only 4 to 1 for the call to be break even?
does anybody have a response for this?Quote:
Originally Posted by wufwugy
If the draw is 1/5 chance to win, then for every $1 you invest into the pot the final pot has to be $5 (including your $1), for you to break even.
Looking at it silly odds wise, the draw is 4:1. If you have to call $1, the pot has to already be at least $4 to be profitable.
Forget about using odds that way and just use fractions for probability. Easier to do the maths and can be switched to and from percentages easily.
As for calculating the percentages of anything happening in holdem, it's too difficult. Start by looking at the odds charts on this site (converting outs to probability), and then get PokerStove for some more difficult stuff.
thanks.
i believe my confusion is solely because TOP states that a flush draw is a 5:1 dog, and that just doesn't sync up.
ya a flushdraw is a 4:1 dog not a 5:1 dog.Quote:
Originally Posted by wufwugy
That must be a typo or something.