Do I go by odds on the turn or by the river?

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08-23-2005, 08:12 AM
pokernewb

Do I go by odds on the turn or by the river?

When comparing pot odds to my drawing odds I've always worked out my odds of hitting a draw on the turn compared to the pot odds. Is this correct, or should I compare my odds of hitting it by the river. If I go by the latter, wouldn't I have to include the bet i'd be making on the turn as well to see the river?

For example say I have a flush draw on the flop. I have odds of about 4-1 of hitting it on the turn, and about 2-1 for hitting it by the river. The pot is about $.75 in a .25/.50 limit game. My pot odds are about 3-1. Now do I compare the pot odds to the 4-1 odds of hitting it on the turn, or do I compare them to the 2-1 odds of hitting it by the river?

Cheers.
08-23-2005, 08:25 AM
arkana

Re: Do I go by odds on the turn or by the river?

If the betting isn't closed then you have to calculate your odds with only one card to come. If the bet puts you all-in then you can calculate your odds with two cards to come since you will can see the river without having to put more money into the pot.
08-23-2005, 08:48 AM
A10Chief

Right. Treat each round of betting seperately. The only time you should be thinking about future betting rounds when thinking about pot odds is if your odds are slightly -EV, but you are drawing to the nuts. Then you know if you hit, you'll win one or more big bets (limit) or a good chunk of your opp. stack (no limit) on the river. Then you can draw correctly. This is called implied odds. It's basically pot odds adjusted for future betting. BTW a flush draw on the flop comes in around 35% of the time by the river, so it's appx..3-1.
08-23-2005, 12:23 PM
pokernewb

Thanks guys!
08-26-2005, 04:17 PM
Xanadu

35% is not 3-1. 35% is a little better than 33% which is 1/3 which is 2:1 odds. A probability of 1/3 is expressed in odds by 2:1. One win out of 3 is the same as 2 losses to every 1 win. It doesn't matter which way you express it as long as it works for you, but most poker players use the odds notation rather than the probability fraction ... probabilities are usually expressed as percentages. The odds notation simplifies the comparison needed when computing pot odds.
08-26-2005, 04:41 PM
CrunchyNuts

Unless you figure your pot contribution as a percentage. But maybe I'm just odd like that.
08-26-2005, 09:43 PM
A10Chief

Quote:

Originally Posted by Xanadu

35% is not 3-1. 35% is a little better than 33% which is 1/3 which is 2:1 odds. A probability of 1/3 is expressed in odds by 2:1. One win out of 3 is the same as 2 losses to every 1 win. It doesn't matter which way you express it as long as it works for you, but most poker players use the odds notation rather than the probability fraction ... probabilities are usually expressed as percentages. The odds notation simplifies the comparison needed when computing pot odds.

Ooops. I stand corrected. See my sig for justification.