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Theory question (based on a hand)
Ok so this one hand came up a couple of nights ago in a session I was playing.
$0.10/$0.25 No Limit Holdem
FullTiltPoker
6 Players
Hand Conversion Powered by weaktight.com
Stacks:
UTG Hero ($26.90)
UTG+1 Xcessive24 ($27.97)
CO dream64a ($23.67)
BTN Falcu ($86.52)
SB Boats_And_Hoes1 ($25)
BB foresk1n ($40.18)
Pre-Flop: ($0.35, 6 players) Hero is UTG
Hero raises to $1, Xcessive24 raises to $3.50, 4 folds, Hero raises to $10.25, Xcessive24 calls $6.75
Flop: ($20.85, 2 players)
Hero bets $16.65, Xcessive24 calls $16.65
Turn: ($54.15, 2 players)
River: ($54.15, 2 players)
Final Pot: $54.15
Xcessive24 shows
Hero shows
Xcessive24 wins $51.45 (net +$24.55)
Hero lost $26.90
I asked this guy in the chat after the hand (it was a talkative table btw) if he was willing to go all the way with this hand, why didn't he just ship preflop. He said that he wanted to wait and see a flop to see if it brought an A or K.
The more I think about it, the more I like his play. However, my intuition is saying that is is wrong/exploitable based on empirical evidence: if it was a great play why wouldn't lots of other players be doing it and specifically, good players?
I can't really think of a way to exploit this besides c/f the flop unless we hit an A or K. But aren't we losing money if we 4b and have to c/f any flop that doesn't have an A or K unless we're also making money when we do make our hand?
Dunno lets get some thoughts.
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