question about pot odds

Taken from another post...
*"1.78 to 1 pot odds" - I know that you get this by dividing the pot size by the amount that you need to call.
*"need to be better than about 36% to win" - Where does this 36% come from?

The pot is offering you $1.78 to each $1 you put in
Lets assume pot is $1.78 and you need to put in $1.
Now the pot is $2.78
In order to break even for the $1 you put in you need to solve the following
2.78x=1
solving for x
x=1/2.78 ~ 0.36

ok so then if your hand beats more than 36% of your opponents hands that you put him on, then it would be profitable to call?

Assuming it is after the river (implied odds irrelevant) then yes