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Check my math!

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  1. #1

    Default Check my math!

    Hey, I was hoping some more experienced players could give me some feedback on this exercise spoony gave me:

    Here is the scenario:


    My raise would be 0.14 into a 0.19 pot, so: 0.14/(0.14+0.19) = 33%
    I need the villain to fold more than 33% of the time for the bluff to be profitable.

    I have come up with an arbitrary range for the villain. I see all sorts in 2NL so I don't think this is too unrealistic...

    Villain Preflop range: 99+,ATs+,KJs+,QJs,AJo+,KJo+,QJo
    Meaning that (taking into account that I hold AK) he has 118/1176 combos that he calls with = 10.03%

    Villain Postflop range (in response to my raise): QQ+,99,AQs,KQs,QJs,AQo,KQo,QJo
    54/1176 combos = 4.59%

    So villain is folding 54/118 to my raise = 46% of the time. 46 > 33, so the bluff is profitable.

    Criticism would be much appreciated! Cheers big ears
  2. #2
    A second bluffing scenario. I am looking at whether my bluff on the river was profitable:

    Full Tilt No-Limit Hold'em, $0.02 BB (5 handed) - Full Tilt Converter Tool from http://www.flopturnriver.com

    SB is very loose and passive. A 0.02c raise was his go-to bet when he was bluffing (badly).

    UTG ($2.78)
    MP ($1.03)
    Button ($1.33)
    SB ($0.91)
    Hero (BB) ($1.91)

    Preflop: Hero is BB with 4, A
    3 folds, SB calls $0.01, Hero checks

    Flop: ($0.04) Q, K, 3 (2 players)
    SB bets $0.02, Hero calls $0.02

    Turn: ($0.08) 2 (2 players)
    SB bets $0.02, Hero raises to $0.08, SB calls $0.06

    River: ($0.24) 7 (2 players)
    SB checks, Hero bets $0.18, 1 fold

    Total pot: $0.24 | Rake: $0.01

    Results below:
    Spoiler:

    Hero didn't show 4, A (high card, Ace).
    Outcome: Hero won $0.23


    I bet 18c into a 21c pot: 18/(18+21) = 39%. I need the villain to fold more than 39% of the time to make the bluff profitable.

    I put his preflop calling range as being super wide:
    33-22,K9s-K2s,Q9s-Q2s,J9s+,J3s-J2s,T3s-T2s,93s-92s,83s-82s,73s-72s,63s-62s,53s-52s,42s+,32s,A5o-A2o,KTo-K2o,QTo-Q2o,J9o+,J3o-J2o,T3o-T2o,93o-92o,83o-82o,73o-72o,63o-62o,53o-52o,42o+,32o
    Or about 500/1081 (46%) of hands.

    By the river, I put his range around (though I didn't think he was slowplaying me, so I think realistically his range is slightly smaller than this):
    33-22,K9s-K2s,Q9s-Q2s,32s,K9o-K2o,Q9o-Q2o,32o
    About 201/1081 (19%)

    201/500 = 40%

    40 > 39, so the bluff is about break even in terms of its profitability.
    ?
  3. #3
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    Quote Originally Posted by B-squared View Post

    My raise would be 0.14 into a 0.19 pot, so: 0.14/(0.14+0.19) = 42%
    .
    http://www.flopturnriver.com/pokerfo...-a-153854.html

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    <Cobra> Nobody folds an A BvB, that's absurd
  4. #4
    Quote Originally Posted by Icanhastreebet View Post
    .
    Oops right you are, thankyou!
  5. #5
    spoonitnow's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by B-squared View Post
    Oops right you are, thankyou!
    Icanhastreebet is yAAwn from the chat btw.
  6. #6
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    Quote Originally Posted by B-squared View Post
    A second bluffing scenario. I am looking at whether my bluff on the river was profitable:

    Full Tilt No-Limit Hold'em, $0.02 BB (5 handed) - Full Tilt Converter Tool from http://www.flopturnriver.com

    SB is very loose and passive. A 0.02c raise was his go-to bet when he was bluffing (badly).

    UTG ($2.78)
    MP ($1.03)
    Button ($1.33)
    SB ($0.91)
    Hero (BB) ($1.91)

    Preflop: Hero is BB with 4, A
    3 folds, SB calls $0.01, Hero checks

    Flop: ($0.04) Q, K, 3 (2 players)
    SB bets $0.02, Hero calls $0.02

    Turn: ($0.08) 2 (2 players)
    SB bets $0.02, Hero raises to $0.08, SB calls $0.06

    River: ($0.24) 7 (2 players)
    SB checks, Hero bets $0.18, 1 fold

    Total pot: $0.24 | Rake: $0.01

    Results below:
    Spoiler:

    Hero didn't show 4, A (high card, Ace).
    Outcome: Hero won $0.23

    Which better hands are you getting to fold here? I want you to think about the merits of checking instead of bluffing on the river.
  7. #7
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    Alright so I gave you this problem, and now I'm going to work it out for you based on your assumptions and check what you've got here as far as the combinations go. I might make a mistake but let's hope I don't.

    Pre-flop Range: 99+,ATs+,KJs+,QJs,AJo+,KJo+,QJo

    I'll make a suggestion here that you combine the hands that include both suited and offsuit versions when listing ranges to make things more concise and easier to work with. For example:

    New Pre-flop Range: 99+, AJ+, ATs, KJ+, QJ

    We hold AK. I didn't say whether it was suited or offsuit, but it won't matter a lot for this example. If you want to organize the counting of these combinations, then a quick way to do it is just list out how many combinations there are of each hand in each grouping. For example:

    99+ = 99(6), TT(6), JJ(6), QQ(6), KK(3), AA(3) = 30 combos
    AJ+ = AJ(12), AQ(12), AK(9) = 33 combos
    ATs = 3 combos
    KJ+ = KJ(12), KQ(12) = 24 combos
    QJ = 16 combos

    This gives us a total of 106 before the flop. The flop comes Qs9h5c, so here's the new range breakdown:

    99+ = 99(3), TT(6), JJ(6), QQ(3), KK(3), AA(3) = 24 combos
    AJ+ = AJ(12), AQ(9), AK(9) = 30 combos
    ATs = 3 combos
    KJ+ = KJ(12), KQ(9) = 21 combos
    QJ = 12 combos

    For a total of 90 combos after the flop. You think he's folding everything but QQ+, 99, AQ, KQ, QJ. The combinations for his continuing range are:

    AA(3), KK(3), QQ(3), 99(3), AQ(9), KQ(9), QJ(12) = 42 combinations

    Based on this assumption, he's continuing with 42/90 so he's folding 48/90 = 53.33 percent.
  8. #8
    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    Alright so I gave you this problem, and now I'm going to work it out for you based on your assumptions and check what you've got here as far as the combinations go. I might make a mistake but let's hope I don't.

    Pre-flop Range: 99+,ATs+,KJs+,QJs,AJo+,KJo+,QJo

    I'll make a suggestion here that you combine the hands that include both suited and offsuit versions when listing ranges to make things more concise and easier to work with. For example:

    New Pre-flop Range: 99+, AJ+, ATs, KJ+, QJ

    We hold AK. I didn't say whether it was suited or offsuit, but it won't matter a lot for this example. If you want to organize the counting of these combinations, then a quick way to do it is just list out how many combinations there are of each hand in each grouping. For example:

    99+ = 99(6), TT(6), JJ(6), QQ(6), KK(3), AA(3) = 30 combos
    AJ+ = AJ(12), AQ(12), AK(9) = 33 combos
    ATs = 3 combos
    KJ+ = KJ(12), KQ(12) = 24 combos
    QJ = 16 combos

    This gives us a total of 106 before the flop. The flop comes Qs9h5c, so here's the new range breakdown:

    99+ = 99(3), TT(6), JJ(6), QQ(3), KK(3), AA(3) = 24 combos
    AJ+ = AJ(12), AQ(9), AK(9) = 30 combos
    ATs = 3 combos
    KJ+ = KJ(12), KQ(9) = 21 combos
    QJ = 12 combos

    For a total of 90 combos after the flop. You think he's folding everything but QQ+, 99, AQ, KQ, QJ. The combinations for his continuing range are:

    AA(3), KK(3), QQ(3), 99(3), AQ(9), KQ(9), QJ(12) = 42 combinations

    Based on this assumption, he's continuing with 42/90 so he's folding 48/90 = 53.33 percent.
    Ah yep, you're right, I didn't adjust his preflop range in light of the flop and for some reason I just pretended my AK wasn't relevant when I figured out his postflop range. Thanks!

    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    Which better hands are you getting to fold here? I want you to think about the merits of checking instead of bluffing on the river.
    That's a good point...My decision to bet so hard into this hand was based purely off his really transparent betting patterns. I was fairly confident that he had hit nothing- maybe a pair of 3s. Thinking about it more, perhaps he was on a straight draw... But if my range of him on the river is realistic then I think he would have called me with pretty much any of the hands remaining in that range, meaning it probably was better to check. However, I think a large part of the issue is I don't think I have put him on particularly realistic ranges. In retrospect, I think his preflop range was way wider than I specified... and I don't think I have fully taken into account the implications of him calling my reraise on the turn.
  9. #9
    spoonitnow's Avatar
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    This is somewhat off-topic, but your use of the terminology (raise/re-raise) is very slightly off, and it could throw someone off if they weren't familiar with the hands you were talking about.

    The first bet on a street is called a "bet." For example, on the turn in that hand, when he puts in $0.02, that's a bet because it's the first time money is put in on the street.

    If someone raises that, then it's called a "raise." For example, on the turn you raised to $0.08. You can think of this as the second bet.

    If there's a raise put in after that, then we call it a "re-raise." For example, if instead of calling he was to raise you to $0.20, that would be a re-raise. The third, fourth, fifth, etc bets can be called re-raises.

    Pre-flop, the posting of the big blind is considered the first bet, so let's say you raise to $0.08 from early position, that's the second bet and is correctly called a raise. If it folds around to someone who re-raises you to $0.22, that's the third bet (which is why the first re-raise before the flop is called a 3-bet). Then if you were to re-raise that person to $0.60, that's the fourth bet (which is called a 4-bet), and so on.

    Hope that helps!
  10. #10
    Quote Originally Posted by spoonitnow View Post
    This is somewhat off-topic, but your use of the terminology (raise/re-raise) is very slightly off, and it could throw someone off if they weren't familiar with the hands you were talking about.

    The first bet on a street is called a "bet." For example, on the turn in that hand, when he puts in $0.02, that's a bet because it's the first time money is put in on the street.

    If someone raises that, then it's called a "raise." For example, on the turn you raised to $0.08. You can think of this as the second bet.

    If there's a raise put in after that, then we call it a "re-raise." For example, if instead of calling he was to raise you to $0.20, that would be a re-raise. The third, fourth, fifth, etc bets can be called re-raises.

    Pre-flop, the posting of the big blind is considered the first bet, so let's say you raise to $0.08 from early position, that's the second bet and is correctly called a raise. If it folds around to someone who re-raises you to $0.22, that's the third bet (which is why the first re-raise before the flop is called a 3-bet). Then if you were to re-raise that person to $0.60, that's the fourth bet (which is called a 4-bet), and so on.

    Hope that helps!
    Oops that's pretty embarrassing...thanks for the tip!
  11. #11
    spoonitnow's Avatar
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    It's cool. Every single person who has done well with poker was screwing that up at some point, I promise you lol.

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