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6 handed vs 9 handed

  
 
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Monty3038
Old 07-30-2008, 06:31 PM     Post subject: 6 handed vs 9 handed #1 (permalink)  
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Ok... this is a weird question because I think I know the answer but I want to hear your thoughts...

On a 9/10 handed full ring table, hands are dealt and up to 4 players get in ahead of you... are you making any modifications to your starting hands that reflect more towards how you play a 6-handed table (i.e.-loosening up slightly due to fewer players in)?

Or does the factor that 9/10 hands were dealt already offset the fact that 6-handed there are more cards in the deck still so the odds are different, if only slightly?

I just re-read that and I'm not even sure it makes sense to me. Thoughts?
 
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a500lbgorilla
Old 07-30-2008, 06:37 PM #2 (permalink)  
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BB, SB, BTN, HJ, CO and UTG vrs UTG, EP, HJ, CO, BTN, SB and BB

Smithers, use the amnesia ray.
You mean the revolver, sir?
Precisely.
 
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badgers
Old 07-30-2008, 06:46 PM #3 (permalink)  
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nobody in this forum is making sense today.

It's fine to play your 6max opening ranges in late positions from FR ie UTG in 6max = MP2 or whatever in FR. It is a very different game tho with different dynamics etc.

dunno if that was your question.
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a500lbgorilla
Old 07-30-2008, 06:54 PM #4 (permalink)  
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also, odds are not different since all face down cards are treated as unknown and thus still available to be dealt. So if someone folds Ac3d, you still consider Ac and 3d in the deck.

Smithers, use the amnesia ray.
You mean the revolver, sir?
Precisely.
 
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badgers
Old 07-30-2008, 06:59 PM #5 (permalink)  
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oh yeah wat he said, how do you know wat they folded?
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Monty3038
Old 07-30-2008, 07:03 PM #6 (permalink)  
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Well, you don't know what was folded but there are fewer cards to chose from... what I mean is if you are figuring your percentage... hmm... maybe this doesn't even make sense...

If I'm looking for how often to hit a Jack for example, there are 4 jacks / 52 cards, but if 9 players are dealt cards, there are only 34 cards left in the deck...
so your odds of hitting a jack are still 4/52 (considering there are none in your hand), but your chances are smaller because there are more cards already 'burned'...

does that make any sense?
 
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badgers
Old 07-30-2008, 07:10 PM #7 (permalink)  
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nope it makes no sense. For instance

on the flop you have AK and the flop comes all undercards. You know what 5 cards are; the two in your hand and the three on the table. Out of the 47 cards you don't know, there are 6 that will help you so you are 6/47 to hit.

The fact that some cards have been mucked are IRRELEVANT except for the fact that you may think players are more likely to play an ace for instance but the affect that has is negligable and can safely be ignored.

So it makes no difference whether you are playing heads up or 10 handed, there are 47 UNKNOWN cards on the flop. It doesn't matter that some are in the deck and some are mucked, because you don't know what they folded so it's unknown.
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Monty3038
Old 07-30-2008, 07:41 PM #8 (permalink)  
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Quote:
Originally Posted by badgers
nope it makes no sense. For instance

on the flop you have AK and the flop comes all undercards. You know what 5 cards are; the two in your hand and the three on the table. Out of the 47 cards you don't know, there are 6 that will help you so you are 6/47 to hit.

The fact that some cards have been mucked are IRRELEVANT except for the fact that you may think players are more likely to play an ace for instance but the affect that has is negligable and can safely be ignored.

So it makes no difference whether you are playing heads up or 10 handed, there are 47 UNKNOWN cards on the flop. It doesn't matter that some are in the deck and some are mucked, because you don't know what they folded so it's unknown.
See now you know why I never passed Statistics.
 
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drtofu66
Old 07-30-2008, 07:59 PM #9 (permalink)  
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Monty3038
Well, you don't know what was folded but there are fewer cards to chose from... what I mean is if you are figuring your percentage... hmm... maybe this doesn't even make sense...

If I'm looking for how often to hit a Jack for example, there are 4 jacks / 52 cards, but if 9 players are dealt cards, there are only 34 cards left in the deck...
so your odds of hitting a jack are still 4/52 (considering there are none in your hand), but your chances are smaller because there are more cards already 'burned'...

does that make any sense?
If a bunch of tight/passive people limp in preflop you might infer that a lot of big cards are out of the deck, but you really can't calculate your outs based on that. You can only go by what you see-- your cards and the board.
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daven
Old 07-30-2008, 08:33 PM     Post subject: Re: 6 handed vs 9 handed #10 (permalink)  
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Monty3038
Or does the factor that 9/10 hands were dealt already offset the fact that 6-handed there are more cards in the deck still so the odds are different, if only slightly?
if you're talking about odds of a card to come - the odds don't change. You consider the cards you can't see - 4-handed or 16-handed, you can still only see your two cards and the board....

if you're talking about the chance that someone has been dealt KK or AA, sure, this increases the more players there are. Don't lose sleep over it though
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