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aytopper
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08-04-2006, 11:24 PM
Post subject: VP$IP and PFR%
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#1 (permalink)
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 46
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I asked something similar to this a while ago, but didn't get the response I was looking for. Anyway, I was wondering how you calculate your VP$IP and PFR% without the use of poker tracker or any other software. I would like to use it for playing in live games. If anyone knows or has a link to a site with the formulas that would be great. Thanks.
-aytopper
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jackvance
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Mar 2006
Posts: 2,910
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It's very simple actually.. count the amount of hands someone plays.. say 20 rounds at a 10 player table is 200 hands.
VP$IP is then the amount of times he put money in the pot. Basically, every time he sees a flop except for the big blind where you can check to see a flop (this doesn't count toward VP$IP). But if he limps and folds to a raise, he doesn't see a flop but it counts towards VP$IP. So let's say he put money in the pot 50 times, then his VP$IP is 50/200=25%
PFR% even simpler, amount of times he (re)raised preflop, divided by the amount of hands. So if from those 50 hands he played, 20 were raises then his PFR is 10%.
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Sarcasm is your body's natural defense against stupidity
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aytopper
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 46
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Perfect, that helps me out a lot. Also, thanks for the quick reply.
One last thing, does post flop action count towards anything?
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jackvance
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Mar 2006
Posts: 2,910
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There's a third statistic people frequently use, and that's aggression factor (AF). This one is postflop. If someone is for example 30/15/2.3 then VPIP is 30%, PFR is 15% and AF is 2.3. AF is harder to interpret than the other two though.
You calculate it like this: count the amount of times someone bets or raises postflop, and divide this by the amount of times this person called a bet or raise postflop.
For example: A bets the flop, B calls, A bets the turn, B calls, A bets the river, B raises and A folds.. then over this one hand, B's AF is 1/2=0.5 and A's AF is infinite (cuz he never called so far). In general, without other reads, the higher AF is, the more likely it is a bet/raise is a bluff. A very low AF of like 0.2 is calling station-like, or a weak player (meaning every time he bets/raises, he probably has the good).
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Sarcasm is your body's natural defense against stupidity
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aytopper
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 46
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Just to make sure I understand this correctly:
A bets on the flop, and B raises. A calls.
A checks on the turn, and B bets. A calls.
A bets on the river, and B calls.
A - would have an AF of 0.5?
B - would have an AF of 0.6?
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aytopper
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 46
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Or is it A - 1 and B - 1? Guess im a bit confused. You say:
"You calculate it like this: count the amount of times someone bets or raises postflop, and divide this by the amount of times this person called a bet or raise postflop."
Would this mean you count a raise twice?
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jackvance
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Mar 2006
Posts: 2,910
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You should read it as "called a bet or called a raise postflop". So in your example both would have an AF of 1.
(otherwise it would have to be 'called a bet or raises postflop')
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Sarcasm is your body's natural defense against stupidity
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KingLizard
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Flush
Join Date: Dec 2005
Posts: 296
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by jackvance
PFR% even simpler, amount of times he (re)raised preflop
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I don't think PT counts re-raises in calculating "their" PFR% only initial opening raises.
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