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denouement
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12-28-2004, 03:19 AM
Post subject: Sklansky and odds on bluffing
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#1 (permalink)
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Join Date: Dec 2004
Location: New York
Posts: 12
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Hi, everyone, I am fairly new to poker and have begun reading Sklansky's theory of poker. I was wondering if anyone can translate this paragraph for me:
"When using game theory to decide whether to call a possible bluff--assuming your hand can beat only a bluff and assuming your judgement doesn't give you a hint--you must determine the odds your opponent is getting on a bluff. Make the ratio of the calls to your folds the same as those odds. If your opponent is getting 4 to 1 odds on a bluff, you must call randomly four out of five times to make that bluffing unprofitable."
All I need to know is what it means to "get 4 to 1 odds on a bluff" Does that mean 4 times it isn't a bluff and one time it is, or vice versa? Or does it mean neither of those two things. Much help appreciated.
Denouement
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a500lbgorilla
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JESUS TAKE THE KEYBOARD
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: This room is a good place to be
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You're just gonna post this everywhere until you get a response arn't you?
I'd need a little context to figure out what he's saying. You could probably search the 2+2 forums and find a thread or two on the subject.
Though, I guess the guy was bluffing at a pot 4 times the size of his bet. So he'd need to be called on that bluff 4 times or whatever times to make it unprofitable.
-'rilla
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Smithers, use the amnesia ray.
You mean the revolver, sir?
Precisely.
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{This post has been removed}
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Aceofone
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12-28-2004, 10:26 AM
Post subject: Re: Sklansky and odds on bluffing
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#4 (permalink)
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Flush
Join Date: Jun 2004
Posts: 497
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by denouement
All I need to know is what it means to "get 4 to 1 odds on a bluff" Does that mean 4 times it isn't a bluff and one time it is, or vice versa? Or does it mean neither of those two things. Much help appreciated.
Denouement
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"4 to 1 odds on a bluff" means that he must be successful in his bluffing attempt at least 4 out of 5 attempts to break even.
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a500lbgorilla
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12-28-2004, 02:47 PM
Post subject: Re: Sklansky and odds on bluffing
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#5 (permalink)
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JESUS TAKE THE KEYBOARD
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: This room is a good place to be
Posts: 8,379
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by Aceofone
Quote:
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Originally Posted by denouement
All I need to know is what it means to "get 4 to 1 odds on a bluff" Does that mean 4 times it isn't a bluff and one time it is, or vice versa? Or does it mean neither of those two things. Much help appreciated.
Denouement
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"4 to 1 odds on a bluff" means that he must be successful in his bluffing attempt at least 4 out of 5 attempts to break even. |
Don't you mean unsuccessful? I don't usually bluff at pots with 4x pot bets.
4:1 is the ratio between his bet and the pot he will win if it is successful. So it only needs to work 2 out of 5 times to be profitable and 1 out of 5 times to break even.
-'rilla
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Smithers, use the amnesia ray.
You mean the revolver, sir?
Precisely.
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Aceofone
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Flush
Join Date: Jun 2004
Posts: 497
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My bad, I went back to TOP and read the "Expectation" chapter, and you are correct.
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