Originally Posted by thelorax

im sure theres some sort of equation to figure this out but im pretty bad at setting up equation stuff. we could also run an experiment over a large M (meaning the # of times you run the exp)

Originally Posted by JKDS

there certainly is and you certainly could. probably faster to just make the equation though

Originally Posted by thelorax

do you know how to go about setting the equation up? im kinda curious/wanna play around with it.

Originally Posted by spoonitnow

I'll show it after this thread gets some action.

Originally Posted by thelorax

ohh ok so for rainbow can we go (52/52)x [(51-12)/51)]x [(50-11)/50)] wich gives us like 61%? wait but then my initial theory of 2tone being the most common would be wrong

Originally Posted by pdk1010

feel like the right answer is "it depends",

Originally Posted by pdk1010

so mono=5.18%
2tone=1 x (51/51) x (24/50) = 48%<---------winner!
rainbow= 1 x (39/51) x (26/50) = 39.8%

if im right about 2 tone every card left in the deck can come out as the second card on the flop and we still have the possibility of having a two tone board on the 3rd card so ----> 1 x (51/51) x (24/50) = 48%

Originally Posted by NightGizmo

Your numbers have to add up to 100%, otherwise you have an error somewhere. So, you have an error somewhere (two-tone is actually 55.06%).

Spoon already showed how to calculate the monotone flop. Your rainbow calculation is right, too.

Your two-tone value is wrong. The easy way to figure it out is to just do 1 - (5.18% + 39.8%), which assumes that you have accounted for all possible outcomes with "mono, rainbow, 2tone".

More rigorous approach: calculate the probability that the 2nd and 3rd card contain only one of the same suit as the first card, and add it to the probability that the 2nd and 3rd card are the same suit but different from the first card's suit.

It's been a long time since stats class, but it's a lot more fun when calculating stuff for poker than doing homework.

Originally Posted by Duffryn

So the probablility of a two tone flop is 52/52 * 12/51 * 39/50 *3 = 0.5506 = 55.1%

Originally Posted by Imthenewfish

well it comes rainbow {1*(39/51)*(26/50)}=39.7% of flops come rainbow
two tone= 100%-(% it comes rainbow+% it comes mono)
times it comes mono={1*(12/50)*(11/49)}=5.38%
two tone = 100-(39.7+5.38)
two tone = 54.92% of flops are two tone

Originally Posted by kiwiMark

I didn't check what you were actually doing, but I highly suspect these should all be the same. Prolly 'cause for the first one you used 38/49 and 37/48 when you were meant to use 39/49 and 38/48.

Originally Posted by surviva316

in case this is a trick question, my guess is that the plurality of flops are two-toned, but none of them are in the majority

Originally Posted by spoonitnow

Rainbow = All three different suits
Two tone = Two of the same suit
Monotone = Three of the same suit

Which happens the most often?

Originally Posted by dneureiter

if card B is different suit from A which is P (39/51)
then card c must be any of the 25 (no... 26) cards which are offsuit from both previous.

(12/51)*39/50 = .1835
(39/51)*26/50 = .385

Originally Posted by daven

and does it vary depending on whether our hole cards are suited or unsuited?

Originally Posted by philly and the phanatics

1, rainbow...2 two tone...3.monotone

way i see it is you have 3 cards coming out and 4 suits, it wouldnt make sense for it to be MORE likely that one of those 4 suits having 2 or 3 cards come out...pretty blazed so not sure im making sense but yea im sticking with rainbow

Originally Posted by spoonitnow

Rainbow = All three different suits
Two tone = Two of the same suit
Monotone = Three of the same suit

Which happens the most often?

Originally Posted by PlayToWin

Was this supposed to be a math problem? I would think that most of you would be able to answer this based on your experience at the tables. I voted that 2-tone was the most common based on what I've seen over thousands of hands. amirite?

Originally Posted by PlayToWin

Was this supposed to be a math problem? I would think that most of you would be able to answer this based on your experience at the tables. I voted that 2-tone was the most common based on what I've seen over thousands of hands. amirite?

Originally Posted by d0zer

Yeah fuk math! thousands of hands is more than enough to develop a gut feeling for pokers!

Originally Posted by PlayToWin

Don't put words in my mouth. I only said that you should be able to answer the question based on observation.

Originally Posted by spoonitnow

I'm glad this thread worked out like I thought it would.

Originally Posted by Tasha

By the way, what are the odds of having suited pocket cards?