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revolvingiris
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06-16-2009, 09:28 AM
Post subject: EV question
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#1 (permalink)
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Full House
Join Date: Jul 2008
Posts: 1,139
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Hand 0: 31.974% { 64o }
Hand 1: 68.026% { 22+, A2s+, KJs+, A5o+, KJo+ }
I was getting over 2:1 to call. Do to recent posts I have been involved in. I cant figure out if this is a good call in the long run. Can someone help me out?
PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $2.00+$0.20 Tournament, 1000/2000 Blinds 200 Ante (7 handed) - Poker-Stars Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com
Button (t7164)
SB (t6202)
Hero (BB) (t33040)
UTG (t29131)
MP1 (t16796)
MP2 (t33827)
CO (t4360)
Hero's M: 7.51
Preflop: Hero is BB with 4 , 6
4 folds, Button bets t6964 (All-In), 1 fold, Hero calls t4964
Flop: (t16328) K , 5 , 5 (2 players, 1 all-in)
Turn: (t16328) 9 (2 players, 1 all-in)
River: (t16328) 8 (2 players, 1 all-in)
Total pot: t16328[/b]
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Stacks
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Jan 2008
Location: Im opedipus bitch, the original balla.
Posts: 2,605
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You have to call $4964 into what will be a $16328 pot. Therefore you need to have 30.4% equity to have a BE call. This is found by (bet) / (bet + pot), or $4964/$16328. Therefore, if your assumption of his range is correct, then yes, this is a +EV call. You can also work out the exact EV of the call, by using the formula EV = (equity)(total pot) - (amount to call).
EV = (equity)(total pot) - (amount to call)
EV = (0.31974)(16328) - (4964)
EV = (5220.71) - (4964)
EV = 256.71
So on average you expect to make approximately $257 chips with this play.
However, I would just like to go on record and say I have no idea about anything ICM related (anymore), and if that comes into play in these situations, then I could very likely be wrong.
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Stacks
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4-of-a-Kind
Join Date: Jan 2008
Location: Im opedipus bitch, the original balla.
Posts: 2,605
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Also, was this a SNG or MTT? You will get better responses if I move this to the appropriate forum, as the players are more experienced there with these situations.
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revolvingiris
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Full House
Join Date: Jul 2008
Posts: 1,139
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This was an MTT, just figured it would help out more unexperienced players along with myself if it was in here.
Oh, and thanks stacks for answering my question.
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ICM basically comes into play when the prize is close
so if you can't fold into the money I wouldn't worry about it and just call
HOWEVER to break even in these tournaments you need to have a 10% edge to call
so you need to be winning ~500 chips with your play for it to be good from the standpoint of tournament fees
in general you need to be making plays that give you more than 10% ROI on your money
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revolvingiris
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Full House
Join Date: Jul 2008
Posts: 1,139
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by iopq
ICM basically comes into play when the prize is close
so if you can't fold into the money I wouldn't worry about it and just call
HOWEVER to break even in these tournaments you need to have a 10% edge to call
so you need to be winning ~500 chips with your play for it to be good from the standpoint of tournament fees
in general you need to be making plays that give you more than 10% ROI on your money
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This is something I dont know a ton about but would really like to. I a have always been a tourney player so its about time I fully get this ICM thing down.
Can you explain this a little further please?
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http://www.flopturnriver.com/phpBB2/...re-t36043.html
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revolvingiris
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Full House
Join Date: Jul 2008
Posts: 1,139
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by iopq
HOWEVER to break even in these tournaments you need to have a 10% edge to call
so you need to be winning ~500 chips with your play for it to be good from the standpoint of tournament fees
in general you need to be making plays that give you more than 10% ROI on your money
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This I dont understand at all. Even after going threw all the ICM stuff.
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spoonitnow
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Straight Flush
Join Date: Sep 2005
Location: IRC Chat Room
Posts: 5,406
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by revolvingiris
Quote:
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Originally Posted by iopq
HOWEVER to break even in these tournaments you need to have a 10% edge to call
so you need to be winning ~500 chips with your play for it to be good from the standpoint of tournament fees
in general you need to be making plays that give you more than 10% ROI on your money
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This I dont understand at all. Even after going threw all the ICM stuff.
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It's because of the rake.
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Quote:
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Originally Posted by revolvingiris
Quote:
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Originally Posted by iopq
HOWEVER to break even in these tournaments you need to have a 10% edge to call
so you need to be winning ~500 chips with your play for it to be good from the standpoint of tournament fees
in general you need to be making plays that give you more than 10% ROI on your money
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This I dont understand at all. Even after going threw all the ICM stuff.
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say it's the first hand, and you have QQ
someone shoves and it folds to you
you think that against shove monkeys you have 60% equity because they might shove top 6% approx
let's assume you have the starting stack of x chips (I forgot if it's 1500 or 2000 or w/e)
the value of that stack is $2 but you paid $2.20 to get into the tournament
you will buy into another tournament if you lose and keep playing if you win
if you double up the value of your stack will be $4
ICM considerations don't apply because the value of each chip is about the same at this stage of the tournament
so you get +$1.8 when you win (60% of the time) and lose $2.20 if you lose (40% of the time)
.6 * 1.8 - 2.2 * .4 = $0.2
so you win 20 cents if someone is open shoving top 6% of hands and you call with queens (actually slightly more if you include the blinds)
but if you say have AKs which is 52% against that range we get:
.52 * 1.8 - 2.2 * .48 = -$.12
we LOSE 12 cents even though we're a favorite (actually we lose less because of the blinds)
I'd be able to do these more acurately of course if I knew what the starting blinds/chips were, but the idea is that to beat the rake you need to be getting it in with a 10% overlay so your hand should beat the pot odds offered by 5%
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revolvingiris
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Full House
Join Date: Jul 2008
Posts: 1,139
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By a minimum of 5%?
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