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Determining a range of PF hands from HUD data

  
 
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KingLizard
Old 06-17-2006, 07:24 PM     Post subject: Determining a range of PF hands from HUD data #1 (permalink)  
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Tried to do a search and looked at the stickies but couldn't seem to find the answer to my question. I am sure it's simple and straightforward.

Using the HUD data on a villain, how do you go about putting them on a range of hands? Example #1 - villain is 15 / 8 ... is that figured as 15% of the possible 1326 (??) starting hands. Same with the 8%.

Example #2 - villain is 24 / 2 ... says he plays almost a quarter of the possible hands but raises only 2% of the 24%?

Again, I realize this is very basic and I should know it ... but I don't.
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chardrian
Old 06-17-2006, 09:59 PM #2 (permalink)  
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15/8 = 15% of the time the player voluntarily puts money in to the pot (whether it is a call or a raise) preflop and 8% of the time he is raising preflop.

I don't know where you are getting 1326 starting hands from. I thought there were 169 starting hands. Anyhoo - download pokerstove and go to the preflop section and on the bottom there is a percentage sliding bar that you can muck around with. 15% gives a general starting range as { 77+, A7s+, K9s+, QTs+, JTs, ATo+, KTo+, QJo }

Which means your opp (in general) is playing that range of cards to see a flop.

The 8% gives a range of something like: 88+,ATs+,KTs+,QJs,AJo+

Which means he is raising preflop with a range similar to the above.

Again, none of this is set in stone - the guy could be retarded and is putting money in 15% of the time with the worst 15% of hands and folding good cards preflop - but this at least gives you a starting range to work from.
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jackvance
Old 06-17-2006, 10:20 PM     Post subject: Re: Determining a range of PF hands from HUD data #3 (permalink)  
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Quote:
Originally Posted by KingLizard
Using the HUD data on a villain, how do you go about putting them on a range of hands? Example #1 - villain is 15 / 8 ... is that figured as 15% of the possible 1326 (??) starting hands. Same with the 8%.
If your sample size is infinite, yes. In practice, he played 15% of his hands, so if you have 300 hands on the guy, he put money in the pot for 45 of em, and a bit more than half of those were raises.

Quote:
Example #2 - villain is 24 / 2 ... says he plays almost a quarter of the possible hands but raises only 2% of the 24%?
No, he raises 2% of his hands. So the other 22% is a limp or a call.

Additional info: VP$IP explains when he puts money in the pot. So a limp/fold (to a raise) will count towards it (even though he doesn't see a flop) and a check in the BB will not count.

Also, if they're 24/2, it means they really only raise their monsters. I think in pokerstove you can input a percentage and then get the corresponding range of preflop hands this represents. Ofcourse, you don't really know if they're raising their best hands. Another thing, a minraise will count the same as a 5BB raise, so patterns in raise-size you will to figure out on your own.
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