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3 person "all-in" to end a tournament

  
 
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gtaphouse
Old 11-21-2004, 02:03 AM     Post subject: 3 person "all-in" to end a tournament #1 (permalink)  

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To end a tournament we had 3 people all-in (the last 3). the question is how do you place 2nd and 3rd for the pay-out?
The short stack goes all-in then the mid chipper goes all-in and the chip leader calls, the chip leader wins w/a boat, the short stack has 3 of a kind and the mid has 2-pair. how should the 2nd and 3rd place be awarded?
Does the higher chip count get second or the higher hand?
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BoondockSaint
Old 11-21-2004, 02:21 AM #2 (permalink)  
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I was wondering this myself because 2 tournaments ago I knocked 2nd 3rd out in the same hand and one dude had like 500 in chips and the other dude like 4000 or something and I just thought it would totally suck for the 4000 guy to get involved in it and then have to end up splitting it when he had so much more at stake.
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zenbitz
Old 11-21-2004, 02:29 AM #3 (permalink)  
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actually this exact thing happened to me in my last SnG - see post in tournament histoires.

ME: 3600
SS: 3000
BS: 12000

I open raise, SS calls BS raises all in, we both call.
KT vs KQ vs A2s , board is KKXXX with 2 to BS's flush - tournament over, I win 2nd, he wins 3rd, even though he would have beat me in the last hand...
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DaNutsInYoEye
Old 11-21-2004, 03:04 AM #4 (permalink)  
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You place by the amount of chips you have going into the hand. Second best hand doesn't mean anything.
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thepokerdude
Old 11-21-2004, 03:30 AM #5 (permalink)  
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nuts is right, the player with more chips would get second and the player with the least would get second. but you never know what you can get away with in a home game.
"But they were suited?!?! You idiot!!"
 
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zenbitz
Old 11-21-2004, 07:05 PM #6 (permalink)  
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what if you were in a home game, and didn't count the chips before the threeesome all-in?

Now, someone would get knifed, probably. A good reason to only pay the winner in a home game tournament.
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a500lbgorilla
Old 11-21-2004, 07:31 PM #7 (permalink)  
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Huh? You wouldnt count your chips when you go allin? We do at our home games.. we dont just throw them in and flip over our cards.

-'rilla

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You mean the revolver, sir?
Precisely.
 
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Spook
Old 11-21-2004, 08:55 PM #8 (permalink)  
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Dont you usually consider both 2nd and 3rd to go out in the same hand. Meaning that they both tied for both 2nd and 3rd place. You would combine both prizes for those ranks and split it between the two players.
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a500lbgorilla
Old 11-21-2004, 09:01 PM #9 (permalink)  
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If thats your home rules, but thats not how we roll. We go by chip position becuase what if there was a scenario as follows: Big stack about 10000, 2nd with 8000, 3rd with 100, BB is 100.

BB is forced in, 2nd in chips went in and big stack called. Big stack won it all, is it fair that the BB ties with 2nd in chips? Just an example on the fly.

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Smithers, use the amnesia ray.
You mean the revolver, sir?
Precisely.
 
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bigred
Old 11-22-2004, 12:35 AM #10 (permalink)  
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I think the chip position should be the highest rank. Even though the short stack technically "beat" the other guy, he had a lot less to risk and the match would have continued if he was actually the winner anyway.
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elanto
Old 11-23-2004, 02:17 AM #11 (permalink)  
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Zen how is it possible that someone doesnt count his chips before going all in, then the big stack wouldn't know the exact amount to put on the pot. Anyway, in our home games we do it by chip position, whoeever had the largest amount of chips going into the hand gets second, but this scenario has only happend once so it isnt really a problem.


-anto
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thepokerdude
Old 11-23-2004, 04:03 AM #12 (permalink)  
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i've actually seen this scenario on WPT and the way they did it was by chip stack. these guys always asked before they went all in, what would happen if the two short stacks were eliminated. they wanted to make sure because at that level on place difference could be like 200,000 dollars. i guess you can do whatever you want in your home game, but that's the way we play.
"But they were suited?!?! You idiot!!"
 
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