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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 3:09pm Post subject: Reraise with AA.
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LAME HUMOR THAT MAKES FISH LAUGH

Joined: 28 Sep 2004
Posts: 7814 WPP: 68
Location: This room is a good place to be
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Alright, suppose you have AA and it's raised infront of you (Though it doesn't matter, let's say 4bb).
Your plan is to reraise. Both you and op have equal 100 bb stacks.
To what minimum value should you reraise so that you can commit yourself to any flop (Simply push reguardless of action or texture of the board) so that it is +EV?
Make the following assumptions:
You will be commited to any flop reguardless of op, action or board.
Op is not commited to calling.
Op will call preflop reraise.
Hand is HU.
If op outflops you, you will not catch up. (You wont hit any outs)
Hand basically ends on the flop as you will push.
-'rilla |
Last edited by a500lbgorilla on Mon, 04 Jul 2005, 9:08am; edited 3 times in total
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 3:20pm Post subject:
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Strike 3

Joined: 10 Mar 2005
Posts: 725 WPP: 73
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that kind of question depends on a huge list of variables. is this a person who overplays big cards/smaller pairs? does he understand that limp/raises or raises from the blinds indictate big hands?
im not sure you can find any generic amount to raise that would commit him on any flop if you both had 100bb stacks.
if you raised 4x his bet it might be possible, but i think hes going to be wary on any flop and only call if he has you beat - especially considering that he does have position on you. |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 3:41pm Post subject:
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LAME HUMOR THAT MAKES FISH LAUGH

Joined: 28 Sep 2004
Posts: 7814 WPP: 68
Location: This room is a good place to be
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| journey075 wrote: | that kind of question depends on a huge list of variables. is this a person who overplays big cards/smaller pairs? does he understand that limp/raises or raises from the blinds indictate big hands?
im not sure you can find any generic amount to raise that would commit him on any flop if you both had 100bb stacks.
if you raised 4x his bet it might be possible, but i think hes going to be wary on any flop and only call if he has you beat - especially considering that he does have position on you. |
I understand that very well. I'm trying to strip the answer down to the absolutes and then build upon it.
It's basically this, how often does AA get outflopped by any random hand? If it's at most 1 in 8, then you'd need to get 1/8th of your 100 bb stack in preflop to break even. Right? So, I guess you'd need to get 12.5bb in preflop.
So basically getting in 12.5% of the smaller stack almost ensures that aces will be +EV.
Right?
-'rilla |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 3:51pm Post subject:
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Strike 3

Joined: 10 Mar 2005
Posts: 725 WPP: 73
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| do you think strategies like that can be applied at your stakes? |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 3:53pm Post subject:
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LAME HUMOR THAT MAKES FISH LAUGH

Joined: 28 Sep 2004
Posts: 7814 WPP: 68
Location: This room is a good place to be
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| journey075 wrote: | | do you think strategies like that can be applied at your stakes? |
Yes, becuase it's not going to end here. After I get the raw number, I can factor in my op+table+flop texture+action at the tables.
-'rilla |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 5:01pm Post subject:
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Royal Flush

Joined: 12 Dec 2003
Posts: 17644 WPP: 82
Location: Walk the Walk, Flop the Flop.
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| a500lbgorilla wrote: |
It's basically this, how often does AA get outflopped by any random hand? If it's at most 1 in 8, then you'd need to get 1/8th of your 100 bb stack in preflop to break even. Right? So, I guess you'd need to get 12.5bb in preflop.
So basically getting in 12.5% of the smaller stack almost ensures that aces will be +EV.
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You're forgetting several important factors:
How often is he calling with a worse hand?
How often is be re-raising the flop with a worse hand he won't call with?
The worse he plays post-flop, the more money you can have behind.
In terms of no-brainer approaches, if you get 1/3 of the smaller stack in pre-flop you set-up a pot bet on the flop. Certainly a wildly profitable spot. If I'm playing for stacks here I really want no more than 2x pot behind on the flop, but I'm not studly enough to back that up with numbers. |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 5:08pm Post subject:
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LAME HUMOR THAT MAKES FISH LAUGH

Joined: 28 Sep 2004
Posts: 7814 WPP: 68
Location: This room is a good place to be
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I'm just trying to avoid specifics right now. I want a no-brainers approach. 1/3rd of the stack seems a bit too much, though. Surely even 1/5th would be profitable.
-'rilla |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 5:54pm Post subject:
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Full House

Joined: 12 Dec 2004
Posts: 1296 WPP: 54
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slightly related story:
I have a friend who was in a big 10-20 NL game at the Bellagio, with no max buy-in. A person raised, and another guy pushed all-in for $7k. He looked down at 2 aces, and had about $5k in chips, and told me he almost considered folding for a minute.
Most people would say "omg call", and he did call and won a huge pot, but he also said the game was so good he could have won his money without risking a 4:1 coinflip for $5000.
I can imagine the pain of being 2 outted for $5000 is pretty substantial |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 8:18pm Post subject:
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LAME HUMOR THAT MAKES FISH LAUGH

Joined: 28 Sep 2004
Posts: 7814 WPP: 68
Location: This room is a good place to be
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Where's Zenbitz or some other math machine to clear my thoughts when you need them?
-'rilla |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 8:52pm Post subject:
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Full House

Joined: 22 Jan 2005
Posts: 947 WPP: 117
Location: Vancouver
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| jmontis wrote: | slightly related story:
he also said the game was so good he could have won his money without risking a 4:1 coinflip for $5000.
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What currency do you use, those must be some crazy coins. |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 9:13pm Post subject:
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Well this is simpler then you might think, for what you are asking.
First of all you need to know the chance of him flopping better then you (2 pair or better) which I believe is 3.8%? Then find out the chance that you also flop 2pair or better and subtract it. This will be the % of time he has you beat.
For simplicity, if we just say every time he flops 2pair or better you are beaten (which isn't the case) then you will be beaten about 4% of the time (if my memory serves me correctly)
So 1 out of 25 times you are beaten on the flop. So you just need to get in 5BB of his stack to make it EV+, which is significantly less then you might think. I'm sure some of my numbers are wrong, but the logic is there. |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 9:17pm Post subject:
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LAME HUMOR THAT MAKES FISH LAUGH

Joined: 28 Sep 2004
Posts: 7814 WPP: 68
Location: This room is a good place to be
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| doggz wrote: | Well this is simpler then you might think, for what you are asking.
First of all you need to know the chance of him flopping better then you (2 pair or better) which I believe is 3.8%? Then find out the chance that you also flop 2pair or better and subtract it. This will be the % of time he has you beat.
For simplicity, if we just say every time he flops 2pair or better you are beaten (which isn't the case) then you will be beaten about 4% of the time (if my memory serves me correctly)
So 1 out of 25 times you are beaten on the flop. So you just need to get in 5BB of his stack to make it EV+, which is significantly less then you might think. I'm sure some of my numbers are wrong, but the logic is there. |
And this is against any non-pair hand? Sexy.
The reason I'm trying to figure out the exact number is becuase I was always using 1/5th. If I get 1/5th of my stack in preflop with AA/KK, I'm commited to just about anything (except for A flops with KK). Just trying to figure out if I've been walking in the dark or accurate on my stance.
-'rilla |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 9:23pm Post subject:
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| a500lbgorilla wrote: | | doggz wrote: | Well this is simpler then you might think, for what you are asking.
First of all you need to know the chance of him flopping better then you (2 pair or better) which I believe is 3.8%? Then find out the chance that you also flop 2pair or better and subtract it. This will be the % of time he has you beat.
For simplicity, if we just say every time he flops 2pair or better you are beaten (which isn't the case) then you will be beaten about 4% of the time (if my memory serves me correctly)
So 1 out of 25 times you are beaten on the flop. So you just need to get in 5BB of his stack to make it EV+, which is significantly less then you might think. I'm sure some of my numbers are wrong, but the logic is there. |
And this is against any non-pair hand? Sexy.
The reason I'm trying to figure out the exact number is becuase I was always using 1/5th. If I get 1/5th of my stack in preflop with AA/KK, I'm commited to just about anything (except for A flops with KK). Just trying to figure out if I've been walking in the dark or accurate on my stance.
-'rilla |
I don't remember the exact chance of flopping 2 pair or better, but I think it is 3.8. I do know it isn't very high. And of course almost any hand not 2pair or better isn't beating you obviously. About the only hand he could flop that isn't 2pair or better and still beating you is top pair with the straightflush draw. Someone can come refine the exact odds but that's a lot of work when the answer is rather clear. |
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Posted: Mon, 27 Jun 2005, 10:55pm Post subject:
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4-of-a-Kind

Joined: 05 Jan 2005
Posts: 2298 WPP: 57
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| doggz wrote: | | a500lbgorilla wrote: | | doggz wrote: | Well this is simpler then you might think, for what you are asking.
First of all you need to know the chance of him flopping better then you (2 pair or better) which I believe is 3.8%? Then find out the chance that you also flop 2pair or better and subtract it. This will be the % of time he has you beat.
For simplicity, if we just say every time he flops 2pair or better you are beaten (which isn't the case) then you will be beaten about 4% of the time (if my memory serves me correctly)
So 1 out of 25 times you are beaten on the flop. So you just need to get in 5BB of his stack to make it EV+, which is significantly less then you might think. I'm sure some of my numbers are wrong, but the logic is there. |
And this is against any non-pair hand? Sexy.
The reason I'm trying to figure out the exact number is becuase I was always using 1/5th. If I get 1/5th of my stack in preflop with AA/KK, I'm commited to just about anything (except for A flops with KK). Just trying to figure out if I've been walking in the dark or accurate on my stance.
-'rilla |
I don't remember the exact chance of flopping 2 pair or better, but I think it is 3.8. I do know it isn't very high. And of course almost any hand not 2pair or better isn't beating you obviously. About the only hand he could flop that isn't 2pair or better and still beating you is top pair with the straightflush draw. Someone can come refine the exact odds but that's a lot of work when the answer is rather clear. |
Actually, open-ended straight flush draw, or a flush draw + open-ended straight draw also has two aces beat. |
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Posted: Tue, 28 Jun 2005, 12:26am Post subject:
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| iopq wrote: | | doggz wrote: | | a500lbgorilla wrote: | | doggz wrote: | Well this is simpler then you might think, for what you are asking.
First of all you need to know the chance of him flopping better then you (2 pair or better) which I believe is 3.8%? Then find out the chance that you also flop 2pair or better and subtract it. This will be the % of time he has you beat.
For simplicity, if we just say every time he flops 2pair or better you are beaten (which isn't the case) then you will be beaten about 4% of the time (if my memory serves me correctly)
So 1 out of 25 times you are beaten on the flop. So you just need to get in 5BB of his stack to make it EV+, which is significantly less then you might think. I'm sure some of my numbers are wrong, but the logic is there. |
And this is against any non-pair hand? Sexy.
The reason I'm trying to figure out the exact number is becuase I was always using 1/5th. If I get 1/5th of my stack in preflop with AA/KK, I'm commited to just about anything (except for A flops with KK). Just trying to figure out if I've been walking in the dark or accurate on my stance.
-'rilla |
I don't remember the exact chance of flopping 2 pair or better, but I think it is 3.8. I do know it isn't very high. And of course almost any hand not 2pair or better isn't beating you obviously. About the only hand he could flop that isn't 2pair or better and still beating you is top pair with the straightflush draw. Someone can come refine the exact odds but that's a lot of work when the answer is rather clear. |
Actually, open-ended straight flush draw, or a flush draw + open-ended straight draw also has two aces beat. |
True, just barely if he has the Ace of the suit. |
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Posted: Tue, 28 Jun 2005, 12:50am Post subject:
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Full House

Joined: 12 Jan 2005
Posts: 1461 WPP: 122
Location: wearing the honors of honor and whatnot
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i think that looking at just the flop, a lower pocket pair is the worst case scenario. they're going to outflop you 12% of the time. so, after the flop, you're 88% at worst to be ahead.
so, i'm pretty sure you barely need to get anything into the pot preflop to make the flop call worth it. you're ahead 88% of the time. Say he raised to 4BB, you reraised to 12, and he calls. on the flop, you would be betting 88BB to try to win 112BB. not sure the right way to say it, but this % is 78%, and you're 88% to win. if you reraised to 8BB, then you'd be betting 92BB on the flop to try to win 108, which gives you 85%, which is still below 88%. so basically, if you minraise preflop, you are pot committed. is my thinking right? |
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Posted: Tue, 28 Jun 2005, 8:27am Post subject:
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Full House

Joined: 16 Mar 2005
Posts: 799 WPP: 62
Location: Orlando, FL
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| Fnord wrote: |
How often is he calling with a worse hand?
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everytime he is calling with a worse hand, AA is the strongest hand preflop. |
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Posted: Tue, 28 Jun 2005, 9:22am Post subject:
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3-of-a-Kind

Joined: 21 Apr 2005
Posts: 99 WPP: 273
Location: At the poker table
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| Element187 wrote: | | Fnord wrote: |
How often is he calling with a worse hand?
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everytime he is calling with a worse hand, AA is the strongest hand preflop. |
I am pretty sure he ment post flop. IE how often he will call the all-in bet post flop, with a worse hand.
Meaning how many time would he need to play along with some PP with the assumption that you have AA then call the all in when he hits his trips on a rag board... |
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Posted: Tue, 28 Jun 2005, 11:22am Post subject:
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Full House

Joined: 25 Jan 2005
Posts: 831 WPP: 102
Location: Yo Mamma
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I don't mean to re-direct this thread, but is this the usual play for AA and KK: Raise 1/5 your stack and push on any flop (except Ace flop with KK).
I play NL$25, and I've been re-raising 'a callable amount' and then betting the pot to try to eliminate draws, but keep in TPTK.
I think this thread is ONLY if someone has raised ahead of you. If you're the first raiser, you just go 4xbb (or whatever amount you think it takes to get heads up). Are you still going all in on the flop here? |
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Posted: Tue, 28 Jun 2005, 11:33am Post subject:
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4-of-a-Kind

Joined: 02 Apr 2004
Posts: 1522 WPP: 82
Location: England UK
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It would hard to make a +EV call every time, because if they make trips you are drawing very thin and must be making a -EV play by calling post flop.
My answer is re-raise as much as I think he will cal PF.  |
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Posted: Thu, 30 Jun 2005, 8:13pm Post subject:
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Flush

Joined: 21 Dec 2004
Posts: 370 WPP: 100
Location: Massachusetts, USA
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I don't think anyone mentioned the money that is already in the pot when it comes back to the original raiser. This changes the math a little.
If he raises 4xBB and you reraise to 20xBB, his choice is whether to call 16xBB to win 104xBB (assuming full stack implied odds). So he is getting 6.5-to-1 before the flop.
As another example, if he raises 8xBB and you reraise to 20xBB, his choice is whether to call 12xBB to win 108xBB. So he is getting 9-to-1 before the flop.
So you need to increase the amount you reraise based on the size of his original raise. |
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Posted: Fri, 01 Jul 2005, 1:58am Post subject:
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3-of-a-Kind

Joined: 01 Jul 2005
Posts: 62 WPP: 89
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this is what i always do. (let's not talk about the position right now)
I re-raise with premium hands, AA,KK,AK,QQ.
I raise/call with strong hands, AKo, AQ, KQ, etc.
I call with any pockets below 8s. u get the point
Anyway, if someone has been raising all day long with decent hands then I would most likely reraise his bet by a little...make him come over the top then push him all in. If someone who has been playing tight...eh, you get the point. In a low limit game, the AA loses their value so quick because people will fish til the end, however in a NL game. Make them pay for it. I mean you have the best hand before the flop. You were lucky enough to get it (1:36) and dont let some other punk be luckier.
From a guy who plays aggressive with good cards...I wouldnt try to trap someone with AAs by slowing playing em because you never know if the other guy is trapping YOU by hitting a set or even a flush/straight draw...or maybe even 2 pairs.
The only time I would be scared to have the rockets is when some newb guy calls me. Newbies that call with 2,8 os shit like that and hit their runner runner flush or get 2 pairs...to crack my rockets...it sucks.
J10 is the BEST rocket crackers! |
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Posted: Fri, 01 Jul 2005, 1:32pm Post subject:
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Flush

Joined: 01 Jul 2005
Posts: 250 WPP: 111
Location: Reraising you from the button
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I think either option is acceptable. Pushing over the top isn't wrong, but I would probably call here. I think if you are BRed, calling is definately a more +EV move in the long run than pushing.
(someone correct me if I'm wrong....) You want worse hands to get in the pot with you pf, so then when you push the flop it puts them to a difficult decision with what will most likely be inferior cards. Yes, the potential for suckout is larger if you let more hands see the flop, but poker is about the long run. If you run this situation over and over, the sum of the all stacks you will lose when they hit their set is much, much less than the sum of the profit you will make when each time no one improves on the flop and KK or QQ goes all in or calls your push on a garbage board (Or when your AA improves to top set, crushing whatever hand they have)
EDIT: wouldnt this even be true if you had the same preflop action, but went into the flop 6 or 7 handed? The variance on this play would be rediculous, but its still very +EV right? If you go to a flop say 6 handed, and 6x your buyin or more will eventually compose the pot, then you only have to win 1/6 times to make it a correct play, and doesnt AA get better od | |